and i've wasted the morning being pedantic to someone. what a pointless endeavor this was.

basically just came down to i don't support any propagation of "X is not 'speech', that way i can avoid saying i'm against free speech."

it's okay to be against free speech. you may get spaced or airlocked for that belief but you believe actions have consequences anyway.

:blobcatphoto: but moderation

yeah but that was always allowed. government speech provisions were there to protect the town square. the problem is just when a corpo takes over the town square and starts being hyper partisan with rules enforcement.

@icedquinn

Penises are not speech, therefore rape is not an expression of free speech

@freemo penises are not speech this is true. but it's also not what the problem is.

the problem is speech protections are there to stop the government from jailing you for having opinions the government deems to be wrongthink.

because people are failures at this whole constitutional republic concept, judges legislated from the bench that "if we just say it's not speech we can ban it."

well no, they can't, and those people are committing treason. problem is people now have bought in to this idea that there exists 'protected' and 'unprotected' speech, which actually even that is more coherent but its still derived from rulings claiming certain speech "isn't speech."

basically its a circumvention on the ban of wrongthink laws by claiming wrongthink isn't thought so the rule on thinking can't ban it.

i still agree that a private chat group is free to go "being racist is off topic" as long as its enforced coherently. i just don't agree wiith propagating the mind virus we can just reclassify bananas as apples for tax reasons.

@icedquinn I mean, there is a type of spoken expression that I'd argue isnt speech in the sense of free speech, but I also agree that is a very dangerous and slippery slope.

Deaming that screaming "fire" in a theater is not protected by free speech is something I find perfectly acceptable.

@freemo the judge who made that ruling regretted it.

i saw someone worked out the answer to this is to sue that person for fraud.

@icedquinn cant sue someone for fraud if its protected as free speech either.. luckily fraud is not protected by free speech either (its a verbal contract and contracts arent free-speech protected).

@freemo individual states aren't covered by absolute speech protection. only congress is prohibited.

@icedquinn how ya figure.. states and their citizens are beholden to the constitution.

@freemo

Congress shall enact no law abridging freedom of speech nor of the press

because that’s what it says.

@icedquinn yes but in 1866 the 14th amendment expanded it to the states, which has been confirmed by the supreme court interpretation of the 14th amendment.

@freemo https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/amendmentxiv it doesn't say anything about that.

> states can't abridge

sure, but the amendment says "congress" so i don't see how that applies. sounds like another brain fart.
@freemo or rather,

the first amendment says congress cannot do a thing
the 14th amendment says a state cannot abridge a civil right
the civil right in question is congress being banned from certain behavior

if you were to make this argument about the ex. right to due process then i'd agree but it would be redundant because that one wasn't limited in scope to begin with.

@icedquinn the 14th amendment says a lot more than that.. as I said already it states a "nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law;" and "liberty" has been deemed by the supreme court (and I'd agree with the interpretation) to include free speech and the bill of rights as a whole.

@freemo i pulled it open before i posted that.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/amendmentxiv

the majority of what it says has absolutely nothing to do with power extnesion. the only clause that can be construed as extending powers is this one

All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

which is literally just a restatement of what the constitution already says, with the proviso of an added birthright.

considering the amendments already state all of these things except the birthright part, i don’t see the language which means this changes the phrase

Congress shall enact no law

to somehow mean

Any state shall enact no law

@icedquinn I already quoted the exact clause, word from word, from the 14th amendment that extended the bill of rights to states.. So not sure how you can argue that there is no power extension.. the text is pretty explicit in the fact that it is extending the rights of liberty enumerated in the constitution to the states.

@freemo because that particular amendment IS SCOPED.
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@icedquinn it **was** scoped, the 14th amendment then basically said "Everything that was a liberty mentioned earlier that was scooped now applied to all stated", the bill of rights being the liberties, thus removing that previous scope and extending it to the states.

@freemo except it actually doesn't, and they've just decided it does. much like how they just decided the commerce clause lets them do all the shit they do now :comfyglare:

@icedquinn No it does "nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property..." The 14th amendment clearly extends "liberty" as a guarantee to the people, and no longer scoped to just the national level.

Of course you'd be right to say that there is a requirement for someone to interprit what "liberty" is defined as. But considering that was the purpose of the bill of rights, to enumerate the 10 things the constitution defines as liberties, it is objectively the most reasonable thing to use to fit that definition.

And as I said your arguing without awareness to the context. There was implied scope equal to that explicitly stated in the 1st amendment in all of the original amendments since at the time of writing on the constitution its scope was explicitly limited to a federal level. So the scoping you see in the 1st amendment was not intended to be a limiting factor but just idle verbiage since the scope was already defined at the time of writing and added nothing. The second amendment while not explicitly scoped had the exact same implied scope. Only after the late 1800s did that implied scope go away. The 14th amendment just did us the favor of reminding us that all the liberties that were originally under that implied (or in some cases explicit) scope now extended to all the citizens.

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