math. logic question
math. logic question
@rolltime @amiloradovsky Is it sufficient to note that some functions, like the absolute value function, have no inverse?
re: math. logic question
re: math. logic question
@amiloradovsky @rolltime It's been a while since I've done theory, and I'm not sure I fully understand your question.
You may be able to get somewhere with Rice's theorem, which says that you can't write a Turing machine that, by looking at the code of another Turing machine, determines any property of the language accepted by that other machine. The two exceptions are the property that all languages have and the property that no languages have. This is delightfully summarized as "anything that is not trivial is impossible".
re: math. logic question
math. logic question
@amiloradovsky @peterdrake well, that’s a bit of a facepalm in retrospect.
Thanks for the answer!