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I'd rather not get into my personal wealth, at least not down to dollars and cents.. but not massive.. Usually at any time I've had 1-3 properties I had to manage for commercial purposes. While I do not act as the landlord for others, and it has been to support my own business I am well aware of what I am allowed to do with those properties and know that legally I can rent them to whoever I want since I am the morgage owner.
That said I do work very closesly with some close friends who are investors and they own quite large commercial properties (ine a few cases they own a high rise or two) and none of them seemed to be aware of any think like this either with any mortgages they have.
I suspect there is some truth to the article, which is why I asked and was so confused... maybe its regional to a certain state or set of states, or maybe its a practice that happens but under different circumstances that doesnt line up ... I dunno, I'd be curious to see where the reality is.
Either way we are both really confused here due to that contradiction and I dont have an answer or explanation as to what is going on. Would seem like a weird thing for an article to lie about...
